¶ What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?
What {G5101} shall we say {G2046} then {G3767}? Shall we continue {G1961} in sin {G266}, that {G2443} grace {G5485} may abound {G4121}?
So then, are we to say, “Let’s keep on sinning, so that there can be more grace”?
What then shall we say? Shall we continue in sin so that grace may increase?
What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?
Note: Commentary was generated by an advanced AI, utilizing a prompt that emphasized Biblical fidelity over bias. We've found these insights to be consistently reliable, yet we always encourage prayerful discernment through the Holy Spirit. The Scripture text and cross-references are from verified, non-AI sources.
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1 Peter 2:16
As free, and not using [your] liberty for a cloke of maliciousness, but as the servants of God. -
Galatians 5:13
¶ For, brethren, ye have been called unto liberty; only [use] not liberty for an occasion to the flesh, but by love serve one another. -
Romans 6:15
What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid. -
Romans 2:4
Or despisest thou the riches of his goodness and forbearance and longsuffering; not knowing that the goodness of God leadeth thee to repentance? -
Romans 3:5
But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say? [Is] God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man) -
Romans 3:8
And not [rather], (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come? whose damnation is just. -
Romans 5:20
Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
Romans 6:1 (KJV): "What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?"
Context
This verse transitions from Paul's extensive discussion in Romans 5 about justification by faith and the superabundance of God's grace. Paul has just stated in Romans 5:20, "But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound." This powerful declaration of grace's victory over sin raises a natural, albeit potentially misguided, question: if grace increases where sin is present, does that mean we should intentionally sin to experience more grace? This verse anticipates and directly addresses this theological misunderstanding.
Key Themes
Linguistic Insights
The original Greek phrase "Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?" (ἐπιμένωμεν τῇ ἁμαρτίᾳ, ἵνα ἡ χάρις πλεονάσῃ; - epimenōmen tē hamartiā, hina hē charis pleonasē?) uses a rhetorical question expecting a strong negative answer. The verb ἐπιμένω (epimenō) means "to remain," "to persist," or "to continue steadfastly." The use of ἵνα (hina) with the subjunctive suggests a purpose clause: "Shall we continue in sin *for the purpose that* grace may abound?" This framing makes the suggestion even more abhorrent, emphasizing that continuing in sin could never be the intended outcome or purpose of God's abundant grace.
Reflection and Application
Romans 6:1 remains highly relevant today. It challenges any notion that being under grace allows for complacency or deliberate indulgence in sin. Paul's emphatic rejection of this idea in the following verses makes it clear that true saving grace brings about a fundamental change in a person's life, leading them away from the practice of sin and towards righteousness. Understanding this verse helps combat the false teaching that grace is merely forgiveness without transformation. Instead, it underscores that those who have received grace are freed from sin's dominion and empowered by the Holy Spirit to live lives pleasing to God.